Why the answer is B, and why the others tempt you.
**The reasoning**
When you integrate 2x, you're finding the *antiderivative* — the function whose derivative gives you 2x back.
Using the power rule for integration: ∫xⁿ dx = (xⁿ⁺¹)/(n+1) + C
So: ∫2x dx = 2∫x¹ dx = 2 · (x²/2) + C = **x² + C**
The "+ C" is crucial! It's called the **constant of integration**. Since the derivative of any constant is zero, when we reverse differentiation, we must account for that "lost" constant.
**Why the wrong options tempt you**
**A) x²** — You did the math correctly but forgot the constant! In indefinite integrals, C is *always* needed because there are infinitely many antiderivatives (x², x²+5, x²−3, etc. all have derivative 2x).
**C) 2** — This treats integration like a simple operation instead of finding the antiderivative.
**D) 2x²** — You forgot to divide by the new power (2).
**Quick takeaway**
Every indefinite integral needs "+ C" — no C, no marks in JAMB!
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